This is not an issue for me at all and won't even cross my mind for at least a year from now (if ever). But I was curious. I know the general guideline/rule is that if you receive a wedding present that you shouldn't use the wedding present until after the wedding. I am just wondering, why is that? Where does that come from?
Is it just in case something happens between receiving the gift and the wedding, that you would then need to return the gift to the giver? I understand that, but I don't know if that is the only reason.
My only thought for this then would be, well what happens if you get divorced like 3 months after the wedding, would you still need to return the gift?
Like I said, I don't intend to do this and I don't think this will even be an issue. But I was just curious as to the origins of this particular rule. Thanks
