Kind of a heavy topic for the chit chat board, but I'd like to talk to some reasonable women (and occasional men here) from different backgrounds to understand something better.
All this stuff going on with the Stanford rape case is so disturbing. I'm so upset for this girl (and all the other victims out there), and I hate to see the victim blaming that always happens.
But there's one argument I'm having a hard time getting my head wrapped around and being able to respond to. A common argument I've seen is that if the man (or perpetrator, I know a woman can rape too) is intoxicated, then he didn't consent to his actions either. So it's not really rape.
Now, I do understand that sometimes two people can drink too much and end up doing sexual things they wouldn't normally have done. So in a way, sometimes sex isn't truly consensual for either, but it wasn't one person doing it to another necessarily.
But that seems completely different from the Brock Turner case. I don't think that you can just get drunk and take someone behind a dumpster and do sexual things to them while they're unconscious. That just seems like flat out rape, even if he was drunk. But where is the line? Is there a line? How is that handled on both a legal and moral level?
Like, if a girl wakes up at a party and says she's been raped, but the guy says he was drunk too and doesn't even remember, are his actions mitigated at all? Or in the most extreme for form of the question, can he claim rape too?
These are just things I've heard people argue, and while I DO think people like Brock Turner is a rapist, it seems like it can get tricky. Is there any evidence that drinking can make someone who's normally not a rapist do things like force sex on someone else?
Pardon this long post, I'd just like to be better prepared to discuss these things, especially when people argue that it's not rape if both were intoxicated.
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